4/10/2009 - HP0-276 2.95

“OpenVMS Security Administration”, also known as HP0-276 exam, is a HP certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 180 Q&A to your HP0-276 Exam preparation. In the HP0-276 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

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QUESTION 1
How can a system manager identify which image another process is executing?

A. $ SHOW PROCESS /FILES /ID=pid
B. $ SHOW SECURITY /CONTINUOUS /ID=pid
C. $ SHOW DEVICE /FILES /ID=pid
D. $ SHOW PROCESS /CONTINUOUS /ID=pid
Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of “erase on delete”?

A. ensure that disk blocks are written regularly to avoid subsequent bad block errors
B. overwrite file data to flush original disk blocks from XFC (eXtended File Cache)
memory
C. overwrite file data in every block to prevent subsequent ’scavenging’ of reallocated
disk blocks
D. ensure that disk blocks are removed from the user’s disk quota
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A backup system disk copy is missing. What are two of the vulnerabilities that are
introduced? Select two.

A. passwords can be directly extracted from VMS$PASSWORD_HISTORY.DATA
B. usernames and their associated privileges can be listed
C. protected system files and data can be read
D. passwords can be directly extracted from SYSUAF.DAT
E. licenses can be extracted from LMF$LURT.DAT
Answer: B,C

QUESTION 4
When an account is no longer in use, what actions prevent the account from being
used while still permitting subsequent backup and restoration of data with original
security attributes such as ownership?

A. immediately remove the files and retain the account
B. immediately DISUSER the account and ensure files have been backed up
C. immediately remove the account and ensure files have been backed up
D. no immediate action, routine “unused account” review will suffice
Answer: B

QUESTION 5
During migration from DECnet Phase IV to Phase V, the nodenames are registered
via the local naming option. The proxy accounts stop working. What is the common
reason for this?

A. the NET$MANAGE rights identifier is required to look up the proxy database entries
B. the NET$PROXY.DAT file needs to be created in addition to the NETPROXY.DAT
file
C. proxy entries need the LOCAL name service prefix
D. DECnet over IP is enabled using the DOMAIN naming service
Answer: C

QUESTION 6
On what is the security context of an executing application based?

A. per-process attributes
B. least permissive of thread and process attributes
C. most permissive of thread and process attributes
D. per-thread attributes
Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What two items should be included in an organization’s Configuration Management
records? Select two.

A. software assets
B. staff contact details
C. physical assets
D. organizational chart
E. details of support contracts
Answer: A,C

QUESTION 8
What is the security significance of a missing audit log file?

A. extremely significant - potential indication of deliberate abuse by a trusted person
(privileged user)
B. minor significance - probably just a hardware (e.g. disk) error
C. no significance - routine OpenVMS errors can cause this
D. minor significance - an untested edit in SYSTARTUP_VMS, probably forgot to start
the audit server
Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What individuals need to understand and ensure compliance with an organization’s
security policy?

A. all staff
B. IT director
C. senior management
D. contract staff
Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum length of an OpenVMS username in the default
configuration?

A. 20 characters
B. 16 characters
C. 12 characters
D. 24 characters
Answer: C

* certpaper hp HP0-276 Questions and Answers : 180 Q&A
* Updated: October 29th , 2008.

4/8/2009 - HP0-J23 2.83

“Implementing MSA Storage Solutions”, also known as HP0-J23 exam, is a HP certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 188 Q&As to your HP0-J23 Exam preparation. In the HP0-J23 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

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Question: 1
Which statements are true about the cache? (Select three.)

A. Cache is enabled while the batteries are charging.
B. Cache is disabled while array capacity is in progress.
C. The cache is disabled while the batteries are charging.
D. Cache is re-enabled after the batteries are fully charged.
E. Cache is re-enabled after background parity initialization is over.
Answer: B, C, D

Question: 2
Which command displays the World Wide Names of each host bus adapter (HBA)?

A. SHOW ALL
B. SHOW THIS
C. SHOW WWNS
D. SHOW ADAPTER
E. SHOW CONNECTIONS
Answer: E

Question: 3
What can be used to determine which model of the Emulex-based card (i.e., LP950 or LP9000)
your system is using? (Select two.)

A. Windows Device Manager
B. Light Pulse Utility
C. Fibre Diagnostics Utility
D. BIOS of the Emulex-based host bus adapter (HBA)
Answer: B, D

Question: 4
Which utility will allow you to find the firmware revision number of hard drives? (Select three.)

A. MSA LCD
B. HP Insight Manager
C. Array Diagnostics Utility (ADU)
D. Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
E. Light Pulse Utility (LPUTILNT.exe)
Answer: B, C, D

Question: 5
What should you use to directly identify the active controller and the standby controller? (Select
two.)

A. Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
B. Controller LCD
C. Array Diagnostics Utility (ADU)
D. LED No. 9 Status
Answer: B, D

Question: 6
With no path failure, what controls automatic path switching in an active/active MSA1500
controller configuration?

A. MSA controller firmware, not configurable
B. Fibre Channel I/O modules, not configurable
C. MSA controller firmware, user can set thresholds
D. Fibre Channel Fabric switches, user can set thresholds
Answer: C

Question: 7
Using the Command Line Interface, which command is used to add space to a specific LUN on
an MSA1000?

A. SET UNIT
B. ADD UNIT
C. EXTEND UNIT
D. EXPAND UNIT
Answer: C

Question: 8
What is used to launch Secure Path Manager?

A. http://localhost:2381
B. http://localhost:7902
C. StorageWorks Command Console client
D. Secure Path Manager local program group
Answer: A

Question: 9
What are three purposes of ACL in an MSA1000/1500 cs Command Line Interface? (Select
three.)

A. To disable access of logical drives to all connected servers
B. To allow spares to be associated with specific arrays
C. To allow access of logical drives to all connected servers
D. To prevent ISLs from fabric reconfiguration
E. To associate connections to logical drives
Answer: A, C, E

Question: 10
How can you obtain the management port IP address on an MSA1510i storage system?

A. From the OCP display on the controller
B. From the RESCAN button in the Storage Management Utility (SMU)
C. From the label on the circuit board of the Ethernet iSCSI I/O module
D. From the two rightmost digits of the controller’s serial number, added to “10.0.0.”
Answer: A

* certpaper hp HP0-J23 Questions and Answers : 188 Q&As
* Updated: October 30th , 2008.

4/6/2009 - EMC e20-322 2.95

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With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 110 questions to your e20-322 Exam preparation. In the e20-322 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Technology Foundations helping to ready you for your successful EMC Certification.

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QUESTION 2:
An HP-UX 9000/800 host currently uses multi-pathed storage provisioned from a
Symmetrix 8830. All LUNs are presented to the host application using Veritas Volume
Manager. The storage array is being replaced by a DMX1000. This will require a data
migration effort. The host is running several 24×7 applications and needs to be online
during the migration.
Two approaches are being considered: host-based mirror/split of the Veritas volumes or
array-based SRDF. What is a disadvantage of using host-based volume mirroring for the
migration?

A. Consumes host CPU cycles and I/O resources; this could adversely impact
applications
B. Could result in corrupted filesystems with write-intensive workloads during the
migration
C. Requires lots of internal disks, where writes are buffered until initial sync is complete
D. The volume copy process requires four block writes for every block read
Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Array-based SRDF does not use CPU cycles for copy or host I/O processes, whereas
host-based utilities do.
B. While potentially possible, this is not the best answer.
C. Not true, Veritas volume manager is handling SAN-attached disk currently
D. This depends upon RAID type.

QUESTION 3:
Certkiller .com requested that you provide the number of physical disks required to
support its Microsoft Exchange 2003 Storage Groups. Certkiller .com has 12,500 users at
1.2 IOPS. At peak activity, up to 10,000 users could be logged on to Exchange. What
other information is required to accurately calculate the number of required disk spindles
to meet the user IOPS requirements?

A. Read/write ratio and write penalty
B. Size of user mailbox, RAID type and disk speed
C. Public folders location and deleted item retention period
D. Size of user mailbox, read penalty and RAID type
Answer: B

Explanation:
Key phrase is “to meet user IOPS requirements”
[(IOPS x %R) + WP (IOPS x %W)] !A Physcal disk Speed = Required # physical
disks

QUESTION 4:
What are the major characteristics of a tactical solutions design engagement?

A. Provides a scalable, repeatable and standardized change control process to achieve
transparent and successful implementations in the
customer environment
B. Fixes specific issues identified in the storage infrastructure and recommend new
strategies and practices
C. Closes the gap between a current storage infrastructure and specific needs for process
or technology optimization and/or new technology
features and functionality
D. Suggests business-enabling changes to storage infrastructure to accommodate growth,
change in business requirement or directions, or
optimizing TCO
Answer: C

Explanation:
A - Refers to Enterprise Management Maturity (EMM) model level
B - Operational engagement
C - Tactical engagement
D - Strategic engagement

QUESTION 5:
What is the goal of an operational solutions design engagement?

A. Business-enabling changes to storage infrastructure to accommodate growth, change
in business requirement or direction, or optimize TCO
B. Close the gap between a current storage infrastructure and specific needs for process
or technology optimization and/or new technology features and functionality
C. Fix specific issues identified in the infrastructure and recommend new strategies and
practices
D. Identify operational process maturity and recommend efficiency improvements
Answer: C

Explanation:
A - Strategic engagement
B - Tactical engagement
C - Operational engagement
D - tactical

QUESTION 6:
Certkiller .com is interested in an SRM solution for its Storage environment. The
environment is distributed over two data centers, which are 500KM apart with a network
latency of less than 100ms between the two sites. The environment consists of:
120 Servers (A mix of Windows and Solaris Servers)
14 ED 64M Switches
6 Symmetrix DMX1000 Arrays
2 CLARiiON CX600 Arrays
1 Celerra NS600
The SRM Solution should be able to report on and perform configuration tasks on all the
storage arrays. The solution should also be able to on the file level details on all the
servers.
Which SRM Solution will satisfy Certkiller .com requirements?

A. ControlCenter, StorageScope, StorageScope FLR and Celerra Manager
B. VisualSAN, VisualSRM, Celerra Manager and Navisphere Manager
C. ControlCenter, StorageScope, StorageScope FLR and Navisphere Manager
D. ControlCenter, VisualSRM, Navisphere Manager and Celerra Manager
Answer: A

Explanation:
With Symmetrix, need ControlCenter (Provides Volume and system-level reporting,
Storage device management, and SAN device utilization reporting)
With Celerra, need Celerra Manager
Either VisualSRM or Storage FLR can give file level details (and are virtually
interchangeable from a Design, Installation and Usage perspective)

QUESTION 7:

You are designing a NAS solution for Certkiller .com. It will involve adding an NSX with
four X-Blades to an existing CX700. Certkiller .com has two ports on each SP to dedicate
to the NSX. Which disk layout best practice should influence your design?

A. Restrict filesystems to a single DAE
B. Avoid striping Celerra filesystems across LUNs of different RAID types
C. Use CLARiiON metaLUNs to increase performance
D. The CLARiiON has a limitation of 256 LUNs per SP port
Answer: B

Explanation:
A - This is not a best practice; file system can cross DAEs
B - This is a best practice for Celerra
C - This is not a best practice; it is better to use AVM
D - This does refer to a best practice

certpaper emc e20-322 Questions and Answers : 110 questions
Updated: 2008-2-16.

4/2/2009 - Citrix 1Y0-327 2.83

“Citrix Password Manager 4.5: Administration”, also known as 1Y0-327 exam, is a Citrix certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 132 Q&As to your 1Y0-327 Exam preparation. In the 1Y0-327 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Citrix Certification helping to ready you for your successful Citrix Certification.

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1. Scenario: An administrator is planning a Hot Desktop deployment in a Citrix environment. The administrator would like Hot Desktop sessions to stay active for 15 minutes while the desktop is in a secured state.

Which setting in the Password Manager Console should the administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A.Idle time-out
B.Lock time-out
C.Inactive time-out
D.Session time-out
Answer: D

2. Which form type should administrators use when defining an application in the console?
A.Logon Form
B.Submit Control ID
C.Submit Credentials
D.Change Credentials
Answer: A

3. At a minimum, which three tasks must be completed before using the Password Manager agent software? (Choose three.)
A.Creating the central store
B.Creating user configurations
C.Installing the Application Definition Tool
D.Installing the Password Manager Service
E.Installing the Password Manager Console
Answer: ABE

4. The Citrix Password Manager Data Integrity Service for an enterprise environment has a signing certificate that expires in one year.
Which three statements are true with regard to the user experience if the administrator for the environment forgets to create a new signing certificate and resign the data? (Choose three.)
A.Users will be able to submit credentials.
B.Users will be able to synchronize new settings.
C.Users will be notified of synchronization failure.
D.Synchronization failure events will be logged in the Windows Event Viewer.
E.Signing certificate expired events will be logged in the Windows Event Viewer.
Answer: ABE

5. An administrator would like to create an application definition for a Citrix Presentation Server Client with the minimum amount of administrative effort.
Which option would allow the administrator to achieve this?
A.Use the Logon Manager on the agent software machine to configure the client
B.Use the Password Manager Console to upload the APPLIST.INI file to the synchronization point
C.Export the Agent Settings to a .REG file using the Password Manager Console and then run the .REG file on the agent software machine
D.Use the Password Manager Console to create an application definition and select the application template from the “Create from application template” drop-down menu
Answer: D

6. When creating an application definition for a host-based application, in which .INI file should the host emulator program be defined?
A.AELIST
B.ENTLIST
C.APPLIST
D.MFRMLIST
Answer: D

7. Which two actions can be accomplished by implementing password policies? (Choose two.)
A.Applying user information to the registry
B.Enforcing password expiration requirements
C.Managing character generation for passwords
D.Using the Active Directory Group Policy engine
Answer: BC

8. Scenario: An administrator installed the Password Manager agent software for all users in the Accounting department. All accounting applications use Active Directory for user authentication. The head of the department requested that Password Manager be configured to automatically adjust all the credentials of Accounting applications whenever the password changes for one of them. A user configuration for Accounting applications has already been created.
Which three options would allow the administrator to configure password sharing to meet the requirements of this scenario? (Choose three.)
A.Add all the Accounting applications to the AccountingApps group
B.Select the Domain Policy as the password policy for the AccountingApps group
C.Enable intitial credential setup so the password is synchronized on the first login
D.Create a new application group called AccountingApps for the Accounting user configuration
E.Enable domain password sharing on the application definition for each application in the AccountingApps group
Answer: ABD

9. Which statement about resetting a primary password using Account Self-Service is true?
A.The Answers to the security questions are case-insensitive by default.
B.At least two of the four security questions must be Answered correctly in order to reset a forgotten password.
C.An email containing the new password and reset confirmation instructions will be sent by default to the user once the password is reset.
D.The Answers to the security questions must match the exact spelling, spacing and punctuation of those entered when the Answers to the security questions were first registered.
Answer: A

# certpaper citrix 1Y0-327 Questions and Answers : 132 Q&As
# Updated: October 30th , 2008.

3/31/2009 - 642-355

The 642-355 Cisco Storage Networking Solutions Design Spe******t (CSSDS) exam is associated with the Data Center Storage Networking Specialization. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Designing Cisco Storage Network (DCSN) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of selecting and integrating Cisco storage products to design a highly scalable, efficient, high performing storage networking solution based on converged architecture. Cisco Storage Networking Design Spe******t professionals understand how to utilize and employ the features and benefits of the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Directors and Switches, Cisco MDS 9509 Director Switch, Cisco 9216 Fabric Switch, and Cisco MDS 9120 products to create a high availability storage network design.

Exam Topics
The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Perform a needs analysis that identifies the appropriate Storage Networking topology, protocols, and transport to meet customer’s requirements

* Describe the benefits of implementing a Cisco collapsed core SAN network design.
* Describe the evolution of SAN topology design.
* Evaluate over-subscription ratio for a given design.
* Determine if iSCSI is appropriate for design implementation.
* Determine SAN Extension requirements for customer solution.
* Evaluate deployment opportunities for MDS family.
* Evaluate the customer’s applications requirements.
* Evaluate the customer’s business continuance requirements.
* Evaluate the customer’s backup/replication requirements.
* Evaluate the customer’s high availability requirements.
* Evaluate the customer’s SAN utilization and propose consolidation options.
* Evaluate the customer’s Storage Virtualization implementation strategy.
* Evaluate the customer’s Security requirements.

Identify the interoperability requirements of a customer’s SAN

* Identify and document existing customer infrastructure.
* Identify considerations that should be addressed when designing a heterogeneous fabric.

* Describe value added MDS features that address identified customer needs and requirements.
* Determine the appropriate topology for a given implementation.
* Select the appropriate protocols for design implementation.
* Select appropriate collapsed core design given a set of customer requirements.
* Select the appropriate design option given a set of customer requirements including applications such as database, mail-server, backup and replication.
* Identify characteristics of customer’s host operating systems that could impact their SAN design.
* Develop a capacity plan for implementing a Cisco SAN solution.
* Identify SAN Extension topology, devices, and features appropriate for a SAN solution.
* Propose alternative protocols, topologies, devices, and features that would improve customer solution (cost, performance, etc).
* Design an appropriate Cisco management infrastructure.
* Determine hardware configurations, power requirements, and environmental considerations to support SAN fabric design.
* Design a backup and recovery solution.

Design appropriate IP configurations for a SAN solution

* Describe the importance of using appropriate MTU size.
* Determine requirements for IP routing.
* Design appropriate VLANs for storage solutions.
* Determine ACL requirements for storage solutions.

Exam Number/Code: 642-355
Exam Name: Cisco Storage Networking Solutions Design Spe******t (CSSDS)

“Cisco Storage Networking Solutions Design Spe******t (CSSDS)”, also known as 642-355 exam, is a Cisco certification.

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QUESTION 24:
What are two ways of preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the management
interface of a Cisco MDS 9000 Family switch? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Management VSANs
B. Configure IP ACLs
C. Use digital Certificate
D. Implement RBAC
E. Use SNMPv3 only
Answer: B,C

QUESTION 25:
Certkiller .com has 40 servers attached to the edge switch in a core-edge design. Each
server’s average throughout is between 22 and 35 MB. How many 4 GB ISLs should be
provisioned between the edge and the core and what will the ISL oversubscription ratio
be?
A. 8,5:1
B. 4,20:1
C. 8,10:1
D. 4,10:1
Answer: D

QUESTION 26:
Certkiller .com has two data centers connected by dark fiber and also has a requirement
for synchronous data replication between data centers. If the data centers are 48 km apart,
what is the most cost effective solution?
A. FSPF
B. IVR
C. DWDM
D. Native FC
E. CWDM
Answer: E

Questions and Answers : 60 Q&As
Updated: May 7th , 2008.

3/27/2009 - Adobe 9a0-311

“Certified Macromedia Flash 8 Exam”, also known as 9A0-311 exam, is a Adobe certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 70 Q&A to your 9A0-311 Exam preparation. In the 9A0-311 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Photoshop helping to ready you for your successful Adobe Certification.

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1. What is the best compression format for longer stream sounds?
A. MP3
B. RAW
C. ADPCM
D. Speech
Answer: A

2. What publish setting causes the bandwidth profiler to be inaccurate?
A. Gif
B. Compress Movie
C. Protect From Import
D. Generate Size Report
E. Export Device Sounds
F. Flash with SCORM Tracking
Answer: B

3. What video codec(s) are displayed through the Flash Player and controlled through ActionScript?
A. DivX
B. On2 VP6
C. Sorenson Spark
D. Sorenson Spark and On2 VP6
E. Sorenson Spark, On2 VP6, and DivX
Answer: D

4. What audio format is NOT supported?
A. .WAV
B. .MP3
C. .AIFF
D. .WMA
Answer: D

5. What is the function of trace()?
A. send string values to the Output Panel
B. discover who has downloaded your movie
C. initiate the automatic debugging procedure
D. determine which function the code will run next
E. automatically output the values of key depressions
F. determine what objects are present on the stage at any one time
G. determine which symbols have been clicked or selected in run mode
Answer: A

6. What is the advantage of the progressive video download?
A. The frame rate of the video file can be different from the frame rate of the SWF file.
B. It uses less of the client’s memory and disk space than the streaming video download.
C. To play the progressively downloaded video, the entire movie must be downloaded before the video will start
to play.
D. Delivery of media is more secure than streaming video, because media does not get saved to the client’s cache
when streamed.
Answer: A

# certpaper Adobe 9a0-311 Questions and Answers : 70 Q&A
# Updated: October 30th , 2008.

3/24/2009 - 220-603

Exam Number/Code: 220-603
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ 220-603 (Remote Support Tech designation pathway)
VUE Code: 220-603
Exam Language(s): English

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3/19/2009 - 642-521

Exam Number/Code: 642-521
Exam Name:Cisco Secure PIX Firewall Advanced
VUE Code: 642-521
Exam Language(s): English

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3/16/2009 - 640-721

Exam Number/Code: 640-721
Exam Name:Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials (IUWNE)
VUE Code: 640-721
Exam Language(s): English

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2/25/2009 - Real Exam Questions for CheckPoint : 156-510

2/25/2009 - Actual Exam Questions for Check Point 156-310

2/25/2009 - Real Exam Questions for CheckPoint : 156-210